Talk:Second Spanish Republic (Classic)/@comment-33409966-20171129231010

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Revision as of 00:10, 30 November 2017 by >Brendan1903 (Created page with "Why is land that is clearly in Canada, in the Spanish map, and Why does Spain control florida, and all of the Carribean, when that is easily proven false. Considering Texas is...")
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Why is land that is clearly in Canada, in the Spanish map, and Why does Spain control florida, and all of the Carribean, when that is easily proven false. Considering Texas is a mess of small inactive city states, what gives spain the right that they get to own all of it, when they have 1 town there? Didn't Spain agree that Baja California was Canadian?

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